Philippians 2:5-11 is a passage of Scripture often used to defend the teaching that Jesus is God. But is this the meaning Paul intends to convey? I don't think so. As often seems to be the case, those who use this passage to defend the deity of Christ tend to depend heavily on a few words, or a phrase, and totally disregard context.
The word focus here is "form" which, in the Greek text, is morphe. The basic meaning of the word is "shape". However, there are those who argue that morphe refers to the "essential nature" of a thing, while others argue that it refers only to the "appearance" of a thing. Scholarship is divided on this issue so, if you want to use the word morphe to defend the deity of Christ, you may cite various scholarly works to do so. However, it is just as easy for the opposing view to do the same thing.
I like what the authors of "One God and One Lord" say regarding this matter.
When scholars disagree, and especially when it is believed that the reason for the disagreement is due to bias over a doctrinal issue, it is absolutely essential to do as much original research as possible. The real definition of morphe should become apparent as we check the sources available at the time of the New Testament. After all, the word was a common one in the Greek world. We assert that a study of the actual evidence clearly reveals that morphe does not refer to Christ’s inner essential being, but rather to an outward appearance.
I concur with that view. In every instance I could find, the word morphe (or one of it's combinations) refers to appearance and not "inner nature."
But rather than continue with more debate on the meaning of the word morphe, I want to highlight the context of the verse. Paul is instructing the Christians in Philippi regarding the attitude they should possess, namely, humility. In this regard he points to Jesus as the supreme example, and the one we should emulate. It should be noted that if Paul and the Christians at Philippi understood Jesus to be God, Paul's admonition to "have this mind in you..." (verse 5) would be senseless. How can one hope to have Jesus' mind if Jesus is God? Once again, quoting from the authors of "One God and One Lord":
If the point of the verse is to say that Jesus is God, then why not just say it? Of course God has the “essential nature” of God, so why would anyone make that point? This verse does not say, “Jesus, being God,” but rather, “being in the form of God.”
The point of Paul's discourse here is to show that because Jesus humbled himself, and was obedient even in the face of death, God highly exalted him! (verse 9) I suggest that when Paul used the phrase "being in the form of God", he was speaking of Jesus current form, i.e. that of the resurrected Christ in a new and "glorified" body. Though he is now seated at the right hand of God, it was never his aim or ambition to be equal with God. Rather, he took "the form of a servant." To say it another way, the "form" refers to the exaltation. The fact that God exalted Jesus did not change his essence; he is still very much human, yet seated at God's right hand. The exaltation (form) is a direct result of his humility (form).
Jesus, as the Messiah, was destined to be king, not only of Israel, but the whole world. As the Messiah, he was neither God Almighty nor servant of any man, yet he now has the "form of God" because he assumed the "form of servant."
"Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." --Philippians 2:9-11
The word "therefore" means "for this reason." If Jesus was himself God, he had no need to be exalted or given a supreme name by any other member of a trinity. The very fact that this text clearly says "God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name" should give serious pause to any notion that Jesus is deity. But even greater, the statement in verse 11 which plainly conveys the fact that it brings glory to God when Jesus is confessed as Lord!
There can be no doubt we are dealing with two separate entities here - God and Jesus. We are to have "the mind of Christ", says Paul. To have the mind of Christ is to humble ourselves and be submissive to God in every way. The implication is that as God exalted Jesus, he will also exalt those who share his attitude. (James 4:10; 1Peter 5:6). That exaltation will happen at the second appearing of Jesus Christ. At that time, either by rapture or by resurrection, we will be changed and given new bodies which are made like his glorious body (Phil 3:21; 1 Cor 15:51-52; 1 Thess 4:16-17), and we will reign with him in his kingdom! What a glorious prospect, especially for those who may be suffering in this life (2 Tim 2:12; Rev 5:10).
Is this passage not clear and simple language conveying the one truth that God exalted Jesus because he humbled himself and the same is expected of us?
